My assumption is as follows :
f : Q -> Q
H1 : forall p q : Q, p == q -> f p == f q
H2 : forall q : Q, f q == 0 \/ f q == 1
H3 : forall p q : Q, p < q -> f p <= f q
a : Z
b : Z
c : positive
H4 : f(a # c) == 0
H5 : f(b # c) == 1
H6 : (a < b)%Z
In this assumption, I want to prove the following statement.
exists d : Z, (a <= d)%Z /\ (d < b)%Z /\ f(d # c) == 0 /\ f((d+1) # c) == 1
Informally, a function $f$ is a monotocially increasing function from $\mathbb{Q}$ to $\{0, 1\}$.
I think I need to do some inductive process.
However, I don't know how to initiate it.
Edit : The below is integers' version.
f : Z -> Z
H1 : forall n m : Z, n = m -> f n = f m
H2 : forall n : Z, f n = 0 \/ f n = 1
H3 : forall n m : Z, n < m -> f n <= f m
x y : Z
H4 : f(x) = 0
H5 : f(y) = 1
H6 : x < y
I want to prove that
exists w : Z, (x <= w) /\ (w < y) /\ f(w) = 0 /\ f(w+1) = 1