I am adding another answer to additionally explain some claims in Naïm's answer, because one might incorrectly understand the answer as saying that a map $f$ can have two distinct inverses $g$ and $h$.
Consider a map $f : A \to B$ and suppose $g, h : B \to A$ are both inverses of $f$. Then $\mathrm{id}_A = g \circ f$, therefore $h = \mathrm{id}_A \circ h = g \circ f \circ h = g \circ \mathrm{id}_B = g$, hence $f = g$. This is a standard argument (in category theory and algebra) showing that inverses, when they exist, are unique.
In HoTT we need to be more careful and pay attention to identifications establishing the fact that something is an inverse. So let us do it again, more precisely. To say that $g : B \to A$ is an inverse of $f$ is to have three pieces of data:
- a map $g : B \to A$,
- an identification $p : \mathrm{id}_A = g \circ f$,
- an identification $g : \mathrm{id}_B = f \circ g$.
Now suppose we also have:
- a map $h : B \to A$,
- an identification $r : \mathrm{id}_A = h \circ f$,
- an identification $s : \mathrm{id}_B = f \circ h$.
In other words, $(g, p, q)$ and $(h, r, s)$ are elements of the type
$$\textstyle\text{is-isomorphism}(f) = \sum_{k : B \to A} (\mathrm{id}_A = k \circ f) \times (\mathrm{id}_B = f \circ k).$$
We can still exhibit an identification $g = h$, like above, but to prove that $\text{is-isomorphism}(f)$ is a proposition we need to exhibit an identification
$$(g, p, q) = (h, r, s).$$
And this is impossible, see the relevant chapter of the HoTT book.
The intuitive way to think of this is that $f$ has at most one inverse $g$, but there may be multiple identifications $p, q$ showing that $g$ is an inverse of $f$, and this matters.
As it turns out, the definition of equivalence does not suffer from this deficiency, again, see the relevant discussions in the HoTT book.